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Re: [IP] Diabetic or Not?
email @ redacted wrote:
> a person can not be both type 1 and 2. Atype 1's body looses the capacity to
> make insulin because of the destruction of the beta cells. Type 2's make
> insulin, ie have beta cells to do so.
No, the definition of Type 2 is insulin resistance, without reference to
how much the insulin the pancreas makes.
Therefore, a person who developed Type 1 in childhood, and who makes NO
insulin can still develop Type 2 insulin resistance, and the other
characteristics of Type 2 in later life.
They're still called Type 1, and treated as Type 1, because of the lack
of insulin, but in fact, they have both types, and a good doc will take
that into account when prescribing medication.
For example, a Type 1 who exhibits insulin resistance could benefit from
taking Metformin -- that doesn't mean that the person could stop taking
insulin, but adding Metformin could help control the insulin resistance,
and allow the person to take less insulin. It's also possible to take
one of the glitazone meds to control insulin resistance.
On the other hand, the sulfonylureas wouldn't help, because they
stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin, and if it can't produce
any, then the drugs are useless.
Type 1's who also have Type 2 insulin resistance may also have problems
with weight gain, hypercholesterolemia and hypertension -- and a good
doc will treat those aggressively, too.
Since Type 1 and Type 2 are TOTALLY different diseases with similar
symptoms, it makes sense that you can have both, even if most people
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Natalie A. Sera, with all her ducks in a row!
Type Weird, pumping!
mailto:email @ redacted
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Can YOU find the ugly duckling? (Hint: it ain't the pumperduck!)
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