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[IP] Am I reading this right?

Article from Charisma's URL stated:

<<In type 1 diabetes, which affects 10 to 15 percent of all diabetics, the
pancreas cannot make insulin to regulate blood glucose. The condition often
develops in patients before the age of 30 and requires insulin therapy.
Insulin resistance occurs when the body does not properly use insulin to
metabolize blood sugar. To compensate, the body produces more insulin and
results in an oversupply>>

I didn't think the body produced much if any insulin in Type 1 diabetics.
So, how could the body produce more insulin in a Type 1 due to insulin
resistance resulting in an oversupply?

Type 1 for nearly 37 years, still waiting for insurance approval...

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